elmaxie

Hey girls,

This is probably a very dumb question but I am going to ask it anyways...

I was just wondering why doctors date a pregnancy from the first day of your last period?

Does this still count even if you use contraception then start using nothing a few days after ovulation and still manage to concieve?

Sorry if this is really dumb.

Emma.xx

Mynxie

yes it still counts huni, if you fall pregnant, it's calculated from the first day of your last AF - no matter what, until the scan (though probably not if u have irregular AFs?)

I don't know why they do it that way though, sorry

mothermayi

i think just for consistency...they cannot tell when a women ovulates, especially with some women with 20 days and some with 40!! so the only way to consistently say is to use the day with a physical difference in a womens body...then they count 40 weeks from there. this is a complete guess mind you, but thats what i thought at least =) good question tho, not dumb at all!! if anyone knows the real answer and i just made that all up, let us know!

Coral

I recently read (as was curious too), that they use the day of your last AF as its a date most women can remember - where with ovulation, some women dont even know they have ovulated, and others can never remember the date (of course they werent taking into account all the ladies on TTC forum here who can remember their ovulation dates very well)!!

tinytoes

exactly - it's an easier date to recognize than ovulation which can vary slightly and most women dont have a clue when this happens (I didnt!).